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TBAT E-Placement Testมูลค่า 990 บาท

yongyutmoonluang — Mon, 28 Oct 2024 14:30:40 +0000

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TBAT E-Placement Test
มูลค่า 990 บาท

แบบทดสอบทางวิทยาศาสตร์สำหรับผู้ต้องการเข้าศึกษาหลักสูตรนานาชาติ ศึกษาต่อในระดับปริญญาตรี หลักสูตรนานาชาติ คณะแพทยศาสตร์ คณะทันตแพทยศาสตร์ คณะเภสัชศาสตร์ คณะสัตว์แพทยศาสตร์ คณะสหเวชศาสตร์
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หรือศูนย์ทดสอบทางวิชาการจุฬาลงกรณ์มหาวิทยาลัย

แบบทดสอบทั้งหมด 138 ข้อ (จับเวลา 180 นาที)
1 Physics (30 ข้อ)
2 Chemistry (53 ข้อ)
3 Biology (55 ข้อ)

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1 / 138

TBAT Physics

1. A measuring cylinder contains water.
The diagrams show the measuring cylinder before and after some of the water is poured into a
beaker.

How much water has been poured into the beaker?

A) 63cm³

B) 51cm³

C) 52cm³

D) 55cm³

2 / 138

TBAT Physics

2. The diagram shows the speed–time graph for a car.

Which row describes the motion of the car at point X and at point Y?

A) Answer C

B) Answer D

C) Answer A

D) Answer B

3 / 138

TBAT Physics

3. A ball is dropped in a vacuum from a height of 4.0 m above the surface of Mars. The acceleration of the ball at a height of 2.0 m is 3.8 m/s² .

What is the acceleration of the ball at a height of 1.0 m above the surface of Mars?

A) 7.6 m/s²

B) 5.7 m/s²

C) 3.8 m/s²

D) 1.9 m/s²

4 / 138

TBAT Physics

4. Two objects are placed on a balance, one on each side, as shown.

Which properties of the objects can be compared using the balance?

A) weight, mass and volume

B) volume and density

C) density only

D) weight and mass only

5 / 138

TBAT Physics

5. A rectangular swimming pool is 50 m long and 25 m wide.

It contains water at a depth of 2 m.

The density of the water is 1000 kg/m³.

What is the mass of the water in the pool?

A) 77000 kg

B) 2500 kg

C) 2500000 kg

D) 2.5 kg

6 / 138

TBAT Physics

6. An object is rising vertically at constant speed through water. There are three vertical forces
acting on it: the weight W, the drag force D, and the upward force U.

Which diagram shows the magnitude and direction of the vertical forces acting on the object?

A) Answer B

B) Answer D

C) Answer C

D) Answer A

7 / 138

TBAT Physics

7. Which force produces heating during contact with a moving object?

A) weight

B) magnetic force

C) friction

D) electrostatic force

8 / 138

TBAT Physics

8. A metre rule is balanced at its midpoint.

It remains balanced when a 3.0 N load is hung from the 40 cm mark and a second load is hung
from the 80 cm mark.

What is the weight of the second load?

A) 9.0 N

B) 1.0 N

C) 1.5 N

D) 3.0 N

9 / 138

TBAT Physics

9. A student measures the length of a spring. She then attaches different weights to the spring. She measures the length of the spring for each weight. The table shows her results.

What is the extension of the spring with a weight of 3.0 N attached to it?

A) 13 mm

B) 12 mm

C) 4 mm

D) 5 mm

10 / 138

TBAT Physics

10. Which power station produces the greatest atmospheric pollution for each unit of energy generated?

A) a hydroelectric power station

B) a nuclear power station

C) a wind farm

D) a gas fired power station

11 / 138

TBAT Physics

11. A 500 N weight is raised through a height of 5 cm. How much work is done by the force?

A) 25 J

B) 100 J

C) 2500 J

D) 10000 J

12 / 138

TBAT Physics

12. What is the unit of power?

A) volt

B) newton

C) watt

D) joule

13 / 138

TBAT Physics

13. The diagram shows a rectangular block of weight 16 N. It is resting on a flat surface.

What is the pressure at the base of the block due to its weight?

A) 0.089 N/cm²

B) 320 N/cm²

C) 0.36 N/cm²

D) 0.80 N/cm²

14 / 138

TBAT Physics

14. A piston traps a mass of gas inside a cylinder. Initially, the piston is halfway along the length of the cylinder.

The piston is now moved towards the open end of the cylinder. The temperature of the gas remains constant.

How are the density and the pressure of the gas affected by moving the piston?

A) Answer B

B) Answer C

C) Answer A

D) Answer D

15 / 138

TBAT Physics

15. Which statement describes what happens to air particles when the air is heated?

A) The particles move closer together.

B) The particles move more quickly.

C) The particles vibrate faster.

D) The particles move more slowly.

16 / 138

TBAT Physics

16. What happens when the temperature of a liquid increases?

A) The volume of the liquid increases, making the liquid less dense.

B) The mass of the liquid increases, making the liquid more dense.

C) The volume of the liquid increases, making the liquid more dense.

D) The mass of the liquid increases, making the liquid less dense.

17 / 138

TBAT Physics

17. In which states of matter can thermal energy be transferred by convection?

A) in gases and liquids only

B) in gases, liquids and solids

C) in gases and solids only

D) in liquids only

18 / 138

TBAT Physics

18. A transverse wave moves along a rope.

The diagram shows the position of the rope at one particular time.

Which two labelled points are one wavelength apart?

A) W and X

B) W and Z

C) Y and Z

D) X and Z

19 / 138

TBAT Physics

19. The diagram shows a ray of light being reflected from a plane mirror.

Which row identifies the angles of incidence and reflection?

A) Answer A

B) Answer D

C) Answer C

D) Answer B

20 / 138

TBAT Physics

20. Blue light has a typical wavelength of 5.0 × 10^-7 m and frequency of 0.60 × 10¹⁵ Hz.

Which row gives a typical wavelength and frequency for red light?

A) Answer A

B) Answer D

C) Answer B

D) Answer C

21 / 138

TBAT Physics

21. Which diagram shows what happens when a ray of white light passes through a prism?

A) Answer C

B) Answer D

C) Answer B

D) Answer A

22 / 138

TBAT Physics

22. A television (TV) station transmits a signal to a television receiving dish. The television has an on/off indicator light.

The television is switched on by a remote control which changes the indicator light from red to green.

Which electromagnetic wave used in these actions has the longest wavelength?

A) Answer B

B) Answer A

C) Answer C

D) Answer D

23 / 138

TBAT Physics

23. A sound wave has a wavelength of 0.024 m.

What is the frequency of this sound wave and is it audible to humans?

A) Answer A

B) Answer B

C) Answer C

D) Answer D

24 / 138

TBAT Physics

24. The diagram shows a bar magnet at rest on a smooth horizontal surface. A length of soft-iron wire is held parallel to the magnet.

The wire is released.

What happens?

A) The wire’s centre stays in its present position and the wire rotates through 90° in an anticlockwise direction.

B) The wire moves towards the magnet.

C) The wire’s centre stays in its present position and the wire rotates through 90° in a clockwise direction.

D) The wire moves away from the magnet.

25 / 138

TBAT Physics

25. A man walks across a carpet. He becomes negatively charged by friction with the carpet.

What happens as he touches a metal object connected to the Earth?

A) The man loses protons.

B) The man loses electrons.

C) The man gains protons.

D) The man gains electrons.

26 / 138

TBAT Physics

26. A laboratory has a standard wire of known resistance. It also has other wires, made from the same material as the standard wire, but of different lengths and diameters.

Which wire would definitely have a resistance of less than the standard wire?

A) Answer C

B) Answer A

C) Answer B

D) Answer D

27 / 138

TBAT Physics

27. The diagram shows a circuit.

Which energy transfers occur?

A) battery → surrounding air → battery

B) surrounding air → lamp → battery

C) lamp → surrounding air → battery

D) battery → lamp → surrounding air

28 / 138

TBAT Physics

28. X, Y and Z are lamps.

In which lamps is there a current?

A) Answer C

B) Answer D

C) Answer A

D) Answer B

29 / 138

TBAT Physics

29. The diagram shows a circuit.

Which change causes the bulb in the circuit to become brighter?

A) a decrease in temperature

B) a decrease in light intensity

C) an increase in light intensity

D) an increase in temperature

30 / 138

TBAT Physics

30. The current in a kettle is 10 A and the kettle is protected by a 13 A fuse.

The owner of the kettle replaces the 13 A fuse with a 3 A fuse.

What happens when the kettle is switched on?

A) The fuse does not melt but the kettle fails to work.

B) The fuse melts and the kettle might be damaged.

C) The fuse melts and the kettle is undamaged.

D) The fuse does not melt and the kettle works correctly.

31 / 138

TBAT Chemistry

1. The diagram shows the result of dropping a purple crystal into water.

Which processes take place in this experiment?

A) Answer A

B) Answer B

C) Answer D

D) Answer C

32 / 138

TBAT Chemistry

2. Which row about elements, mixtures and compounds is correct?

A) Answer D

B) Answer C

C) Answer B

D) Answer A

33 / 138

TBAT Chemistry

3. What are the relative charge and relative mass of an electron?

A) Answer B

B) Answer A

C) Answer C

D) Answer D

34 / 138

TBAT Chemistry

4. The atomic structures of four particles, W, X, Y and Z, are shown.

Which particles are isotopes of the same element?

A) X and Y

B) W and Y

C) X and Z

D) W and X

35 / 138

TBAT Chemistry

5. Which row shows the properties of an ionic compound?

A) Answer B

B) Answer C

C) Answer A

D) Answer D

36 / 138

TBAT Chemistry

6. Which row describes the formation of single covalent bonds in methane?

A) Answer C

B) Answer D

C) Answer A

D) Answer B

37 / 138

TBAT Chemistry

7. Which equation represents the neutralisation of nitric acid using sodium hydroxide?

A) NaOH(l) + HNO₃(l) → NaNO₃(l) + H₂O(aq)

B) NaOH(aq) + HNO₃(aq) → NaNO₃(l) + H₂O(l)

C) NaOH(aq) + HNO₃(aq) → NaNO₃(aq) + H₂O(l)

D) NaOH(l) + HNO₃(l) → NaNO₃(l) + H₂O(l)

38 / 138

TBAT Chemistry

8. What is the relative formula mass of ammonium nitrate, NH₄NO₃?

A) 122

B) 80

C) 108

D) 150

39 / 138

TBAT Chemistry

9. Concentrated aqueous sodium chloride is electrolysed using inert electrodes.

Gases X and Y are produced at the electrodes shown.

What are X and Y?

A) Answer B

B) Answer A

C) Answer D

D) Answer C

40 / 138

TBAT Chemistry

10. Which statement about hydrogen fuel cells is correct?

A) Hydrogen fuel cells do not need oxygen.

B) The reaction in a fuel cell is endothermic.

C) Hydrogen fuel cells do not produce carbon dioxide.

D) The waste from a hydrogen fuel cell is an acidic gas.

41 / 138

TBAT Chemistry

11. A reaction pathway diagram is shown.

Which statement about this reaction is correct?

A) The temperature of the surroundings increases.

B) The reaction is endothermic.

C) The reaction rate increases during the reaction.

D) The reaction transfers thermal energy to the surroundings.

42 / 138

TBAT Chemistry

12. Lumps of calcium carbonate react with dilute hydrochloric acid as shown.

CaCO₃ + 2HCl → CaCl₂ + H₂O + CO₂

Which change in conditions decreases the rate of the reaction?

A) increasing the volume of the acid

B) increasing the temperature

C) increasing the size of the lumps of calcium carbonate

D) increasing the concentration of the acid

43 / 138

TBAT Chemistry

13. Solid copper(II) sulfate exists in two different forms, anhydrous and hydrated.

One of these forms is blue and the other is white.

The change between these two forms is reversible.

blue form ⇌ white form

What is the blue form and how is the change from the blue form to the white form brought about?

A) Answer C

B) Answer D

C) Answer B

D) Answer A

44 / 138

TBAT Chemistry

14. Four redox equations and statements about the equations are shown.

Which statements about the equations are correct?

A) 1 and 2

B) 1 and 3

C) 3 and 4

D) 2 and 4

45 / 138

TBAT Chemistry

15. Sodium hydroxide forms an alkaline solution with a pH of 14.

Which indicator turns yellow when added to this solution?

A) litmus

B) methyl orange

C) thymolphthalein

D) universal indicator

46 / 138

TBAT Chemistry

16. Which row identifies an acidic oxide and a basic oxide?

A) Answer B

B) Answer C

C) Answer D

D) Answer A

47 / 138

TBAT Chemistry

17. A student makes aqueous copper(II) chloride by adding excess copper(II) carbonate to dilute hydrochloric acid.

What is the next step in the method in the formation of solid copper(II) chloride?

A) evaporation

B) titration

C) crystallisation

D) filtration

48 / 138

TBAT Chemistry

18. Which statements about the trends across a period of the Periodic Table are correct?

Aluminium is more metallic than sodium.
Beryllium is more metallic than carbon.
Boron is more metallic than lithium.
Magnesium is more metallic than silicon.

A) 2 and 4

B) 3 and 4

C) 1 and 2

D) 1 and 3

49 / 138

TBAT Chemistry

19. Which row shows the trend in melting point, density and reactivity as Group I is descended?

A) Answer C

B) Answer D

C) Answer B

D) Answer A

50 / 138

TBAT Chemistry

20. Which row describes a similarity and a difference between chlorine and bromine?

A) Answer A

B) Answer C

C) Answer B

D) Answer D

51 / 138

TBAT Chemistry

21. Which statement describes transition elements?

A) They have high densities and low melting points.

B) They have low densities and high melting points.

C) They have low densities and low melting points.

D) They have high densities and high melting points.

52 / 138

TBAT Chemistry

22. Which diagram shows the electronic structure of a noble gas?

A) Answer D

B) Answer B

C) Answer C

D) Answer A

53 / 138

TBAT Chemistry

23. Which gas is made when powdered zinc is added to dilute hydrochloric acid?

A) oxygen

B) hydrogen

C) chlorine

D) carbon dioxide

54 / 138

TBAT Chemistry

24. Which metal is used in aircraft manufacture because it has a low density?

A) copper

B) aluminium

C) potassium

D) iron

55 / 138

TBAT Chemistry

25. The diagram represents the structure of a solid.

Which solids does the diagram represent?

A) Answer A

B) Answer C

C) Answer B

D) Answer D

56 / 138

TBAT Chemistry

26. Three students, X, Y and Z, are told that solid P reacts with dilute acids and also conducts electricity.

The table shows the students’ suggestions about the identity of P.

Which students are correct?

A) X, Y and Z

B) Y only

C) Z only

D) X only

57 / 138

TBAT Chemistry

27. Which substances in the air are needed for iron to rust?

A) water only

B) oxygen and water

C) oxygen only

D) water and carbon dioxide

58 / 138

TBAT Chemistry

28. Part of the reactivity series of metals is shown.

Which row shows how each metal is extracted from its ore?

A) Answer D

B) Answer A

C) Answer C

D) Answer B

59 / 138

TBAT Chemistry

29. Which gas has the fastest rate of diffusion?

A) Ar

B) H₂S

C) C₂H₆

D) HCl

60 / 138

TBAT Chemistry

30. There are two stable isotopes of bromine.

The mass number of isotope 1 is 79.

The mass number of isotope 2 is 81.

Which statement is correct?

A) The isotopes have the same number of neutrons.

B) The isotopes have different chemical properties.

C) The isotopes have different numbers of protons.

D) The isotopes have the same number of outer electrons.

61 / 138

TBAT Chemistry

31. Which statement about ions and ionic bonds is correct?

A) Bromine atoms form negatively charged bromide ions.

B) Positive ions are formed when atoms lose protons.

C) Potassium iodide contains negatively charged potassium ions.

D) Ionic bonds form between elements in Group VII of the Periodic Table.

62 / 138

TBAT Chemistry

32. Part of the Periodic Table is shown.

Which type of chemical bonding is present in the oxide of F and in the oxide of G?

A) Answer D

B) Answer B

C) Answer A

D) Answer C

63 / 138

TBAT Chemistry

33. Elements X and Y react to form a compound.

Element X loses two electrons and element Y gains one electron.

What is the charge on the ions of elements X and Y and what is the formula of the compound?

A) Answer C

B) Answer B

C) Answer D

D) Answer A

64 / 138

TBAT Chemistry

34. Which statement about graphite explains why it is used as an electrode?

A) It has a giant covalent structure.

B) It has mobile electrons.

C) It is a metal.

D) It contains ions.

65 / 138

TBAT Chemistry

35. Methane, CH₄, burns in air to form carbon dioxide and water.

What is the balanced equation for this reaction?

A) CH₄(g) + 2O₂(g) → CO₂(g) + 2H₂O(g)

B) CH₄(g) + O₂(g) → CO₂(g) + 2H₂O(g)

C) CH₄(g) + 3O₂(g) → CO₂(g) + 2H₂O(g)

D) CH₄(g) + 2O₂(g) → CO₂(g) + H₂O(g)

66 / 138

TBAT Chemistry

36. The equation for the thermal decomposition of sodium hydrogencarbonate is shown.

2NaHCO₃ → Na₂CO₃ + H₂O + CO₂

The M_r of sodium hydrogencarbonate, NaHCO₃, is 84.

The M_r of sodium carbonate, Na₂CO₃, is 106.

In an experiment, 2.1 g of sodium hydrogencarbonate is heated but not all of it decomposes. All of the carbon dioxide is collected and measured at room temperature and pressure. The total volume of carbon dioxide produced is 0.21 dm³.

The volume of 1 mole of a gas at room temperature and pressure is 24 dm³.

Which statement is correct?

A) The percentage yield of carbon dioxide is 35%.

B) The mass of sodium carbonate produced is 0.93 g.

C) The percentage yield of carbon dioxide is 10%.

D) The mass of sodium carbonate produced is 1.33 g.

67 / 138

TBAT Chemistry

37. An electrolysis experiment is done using carbon electrodes.

Hydrogen and oxygen are formed at the electrodes.

What is the electrolyte?

A) molten potassium oxide

B) aqueous copper(II) sulfate

C) concentrated hydrochloric acid

D) dilute aqueous sodium chloride

68 / 138

TBAT Chemistry

38. Concentrated aqueous copper(II) sulfate is electrolysed using copper electrodes.

Which ionic half-equation describes the reaction taking place at the cathode?

A) 2H⁺ + 2e^- → H₂

B) Cu²⁺ + 2e^- → Cu

C) 4OH^- → O₂ + 2H₂O + 4e^-

D) Cu → Cu²⁺ + 2e^-

69 / 138

TBAT Chemistry

39. When powdered sodium carbonate and aqueous ethanoic acid are mixed, the temperature of the mixture falls.

Which statement about this reaction is correct?

A) The reaction is endothermic and ∆H is negative.

B) The reaction is exothermic and ∆H is positive.

C) The reaction is endothermic and ∆H is positive.

D) The reaction is exothermic and ∆H is negative.

70 / 138

TBAT Chemistry

40. Magnesium powder reacts with an excess of dilute hydrochloric acid to produce hydrogen gas.

Which statements about this reaction are correct?

The smaller the particles of magnesium powder, the more slowly the hydrogen is produced.
The higher the temperature, the faster the magnesium powder disappears.
The lower the concentration of dilute hydrochloric acid, the faster the rate of reaction.
The faster the magnesium powder disappears, the faster the rate of reaction.

A) 2 and 4

B) 2 and 3

C) 1 and 2

D) 3 and 4

71 / 138

TBAT Chemistry

41. The reaction between two aqueous compounds, X and Y, is slow and exothermic.

The graph shows how the rate of this reaction changes with time.

A student suggests that the rate of reaction decreases with time because:

the activation energy decreases
the speed of the molecules of X and Y decreases
the concentration of both X and Y decreases with time.

Which suggestions are correct?

A) 2 only

B) 1 and 2

C) 3 only

D) 1 and 3

72 / 138

TBAT Chemistry

42. Hydrogen reacts with iodine to form hydrogen iodide.

H₂(g) + I₂(g) → 2HI(g)

Which statements explain why the reaction is faster when the pressure is increased, at constant temperature?

At higher pressure, the molecules are moving faster.
At higher pressure, more of the molecules have the required activation energy.
At higher pressure, the molecules are closer together.
At higher pressure, the molecules collide more frequently.

A) 2 and 4

B) 1 and 2

C) 3 and 4

D) 1 and 3

73 / 138

TBAT Chemistry

43. Ammonium sulfate is used as a fertiliser.

It is made from ammonia and sulfuric acid.

The ......1...... is made by the ......2...... process in which ......3...... is used as a catalyst.

Which words complete gaps 1, 2 and 3?

A) Answer B

B) Answer A

C) Answer C

D) Answer D

74 / 138

TBAT Chemistry

44. The reversible reaction shown takes place in a closed system at constant temperature.

P(g) + Q(g) + R(g) ⇌ S(g) + T(g)

When the reaction has reached equilibrium, more T is added.

After the addition of T, which other substances increase in concentration?

A) P, Q and R only

B) P, Q, R and S

C) P and Q only

D) S only

75 / 138

TBAT Chemistry

45. In which equation is the underlined substance acting as a reducing agent?

A) CO₂ + C → 2CO

B) 3CO + Fe₂O₃ → 2Fe + 3CO₂

C) CaO + H₂O → Ca(OH)₂

D) CuO + H₂ → Cu + H₂O

76 / 138

TBAT Chemistry

46. An aqueous solution reacts with a solid. The products are an alkaline gas, a salt and water.

What are the aqueous solution and the solid?

A) Answer C

B) Answer A

C) Answer D

D) Answer B

77 / 138

TBAT Chemistry

47. Butanoic acid partially dissociates in aqueous solution.

Which row about butanoic acid is correct?

Copper(II) sulfate is prepared by adding excess copper(II) carbonate to sulfuric acid.

Why is an excess of copper(II) carbonate added?

A) to increase the amount of copper(II) sulfate produced

B) to increase the rate of reaction

C) to ensure all the copper(II) carbonate has reacted

D) to ensure all the sulfuric acid has reacted

78 / 138

TBAT Chemistry

48. Part of the Periodic Table is shown.

Which element has two electrons in its outer shell and three electron shells?

A) Answer B

B) Answer C

C) Answer A

D) Answer D

79 / 138

TBAT Chemistry

49. Elements in Group I and Group II show the same trends in their reactions with water and in their density.

Which row shows how the properties of barium compare with calcium?

A) Answer B

B) Answer C

C) Answer D

D) Answer A

80 / 138

TBAT Chemistry

50. Which pair of compounds shows a transition element in two different oxidation states?

A) Cu₂O and CuCO₃

B) NiO and Ni(NO₃)₂

C) ZnS and ZnSO₄

D) Cr₂O₃ and Cr₂(SO₄)₃

81 / 138

TBAT Chemistry

51. Which description of brass is correct?

A) a compound of copper and tin

B) a mixture of copper and tin

C) a compound of copper and zinc

D) a mixture of copper and zinc

82 / 138

TBAT Chemistry

52. What is the symbol of the metal used in the manufacture of aircraft because of its low density?

A) Al

B) Fe

C) Cu

D) Zn

83 / 138

TBAT Chemistry

53. Which substances react to form hydrogen gas?

calcium and water
silver and dilute hydrochloric acid
magnesium and steam
zinc and dilute hydrochloric acid

A) 4 only

B) 1, 3 and 4

C) 1 and 3 only

D) 2 and 4

84 / 138

TBAT Biology

1. Living animals release carbon dioxide.

This is an example of which life process?

A) movement

B) excretion

C) sensitivity

D) nutrition

85 / 138

TBAT Biology

2. Some statements about species are given.

Members of a species all look identical.
Members of a species belong to the same genus.
Members of a species can produce fertile offspring.
Species are named using an international system.

Which statements are correct?

A) 2 and 4 only

B) 2, 3 and 4 only

C) 1, 2, 3 and 4

D) 1, 2 and 3 only

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TBAT Biology

3. The table shows some features of different animals.

Which animal is a reptile?

A) Answer A

B) Answer D

C) Answer B

D) Answer C

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TBAT Biology

4. Which structures are found in the cells of all living organisms?

cell membrane
chloroplast
cytoplasm

A) 1 and 3 only

B) 1 and 2 only

C) 2 and 3 only

D) 1, 2 and 3

88 / 138

TBAT Biology

5. A diagram of a human red blood cell is shown. The length of line XY on the diagram is 40 mm.

The actual width of the cell is 0.008 mm.

What is the magnification of the diagram?

A) ×500000

B) ×5000

C) ×50000

D) ×500

89 / 138

TBAT Biology

6. Which statements are correct for both diffusion and osmosis?

A) Answer B

B) Answer D

C) Answer C

D) Answer A

90 / 138

TBAT Biology

7. What is a role of water in digestion?

A) It is an enzyme.

B) It is a solvent.

C) It is soluble.

D) It is a mineral.

91 / 138

TBAT Biology

8. The concentration of sodium ions in the soil is lower than the concentration inside root hair cells.

Which process will be used when sodium ions are taken into root hair cells from the soil?

A) transpiration

B) osmosis

C) active transport

D) diffusion

92 / 138

TBAT Biology

9. The diagram represents a protein molecule.

What do the small circles represent?

A) glycerol

B) amino acids

C) simple sugars

D) fatty acids

93 / 138

TBAT Biology

10. Which processes depend on the action of enzymes?

digestion
osmosis
respiration

A) 1 only

B) 2 and 3

C) 1 and 2

D) 1 and 3

94 / 138

TBAT Biology

11. Which diagram of an enzyme, active site and substrate is correct?

A) Answer C

B) Answer D

C) Answer B

D) Answer A

95 / 138

TBAT Biology

12. Four test-tubes are set up as shown.

Which test-tube contains the least carbon dioxide after one hour?

A) Answer D

B) Answer B

C) Answer C

D) Answer A

96 / 138

TBAT Biology

13. Which row shows the uses of some carbohydrates in plants?

A) Answer B

B) Answer C

C) Answer D

D) Answer A

97 / 138

TBAT Biology

14. The lack of which component of a balanced diet will lead to the development of scurvy?

A) vitamin C

B) vitamin D

C) iron

D) calcium

98 / 138

TBAT Biology

15. Which structure is the duodenum?

A) Answer D

B) Answer A

C) Answer B

D) Answer C

99 / 138

TBAT Biology

16. The food label is from a packet of cereal.

The label can help someone who is concerned about their diet.

A person eats 45g of cereal.

One of the food types listed in the label can help prevent constipation.

How many grams of this food type does the person eat?

A) 3.5g

B) 1.3g

C) 7.7g

D) 2.8g

100 / 138

TBAT Biology

17. Which pathway is taken by water through a plant?

A) root hair → root cortex → xylem → mesophyll → stomata

B) stomata → root cortex → xylem → mesophyll → root hair

C) stomata → root hair → root cortex → xylem → mesophyll

D) root hair → xylem → mesophyll → root cortex → stomata

101 / 138

TBAT Biology

18. Which row shows the transpiration rate for the conditions described?

A) Answer C

B) Answer B

C) Answer A

D) Answer D

102 / 138

TBAT Biology

19. The diagram shows the human heart.

Which label shows the left ventricle?

A) Answer D

B) Answer A

C) Answer C

D) Answer B

103 / 138

TBAT Biology

20. Which row shows the features of an artery or a vein?

A) Answer C

B) Answer A

C) Answer B

D) Answer D

104 / 138

TBAT Biology

21. What are features of gas exchange surfaces in animals?

A) thick-walled and small surface area

B) thin-walled and small surface area

C) thin-walled and large surface area

D) thick-walled and large surface area

105 / 138

TBAT Biology

22. Which chemical can be used to show the presence of carbon dioxide gas?

A) limewater

B) Benedict’s solution

C) biuret solution

D) ethanol

106 / 138

TBAT Biology

23. The diagram represents the exchange of gases during breathing and during respiration in the body.

What is represented by X?

A) heart

B) liver

C) lungs

D) kidneys

107 / 138

TBAT Biology

24. Which molecule is produced by anaerobic respiration in yeast?

A) oxygen

B) lactic acid

C) water

D) carbon dioxide

108 / 138

TBAT Biology

25. The diagram shows the human body and some of its organs.

Which structure removes urea from the blood?

A) Answer C

B) Answer B

C) Answer A

D) Answer D

109 / 138

TBAT Biology

26. The diagram shows the structures in a reflex arc.

What is X?

A) sensory neurone

B) synapse

C) relay neurone

D) effector

110 / 138

TBAT Biology

27. Changes in light intensity cause changes in the diameter of the pupil in the eye.

Which rows show the pupil reflex?

A) 1 and 4

B) 2 and 4

C) 2 and 3

D) 1 and 3

111 / 138

TBAT Biology

28. A hormone is injected into a person to reduce their blood glucose concentration.

Which endocrine gland is not functioning properly in a person who needs to have this injection?

A) testis

B) adrenal gland

C) pancreas

D) ovary

112 / 138

TBAT Biology

29. The table shows which antibiotics are effective against different types of bacteria.

The shaded areas show the antibiotic is effective against that type of bacteria.

A person has a disease caused by a type of Streptococcus bacteria and a second infection caused by a type of Pseudomonas bacteria.

Which antibiotic should be taken?

A) 2 or 4

B) 3 or 4

C) 5 or 6

D) 1 or 6

113 / 138

TBAT Biology

30. The diagram shows one way that a plant can reproduce.

What is a feature of this type of reproduction?

A) Pollination by insects is required.

B) The offspring show genetic variation.

C) Offspring are easily dispersed over a wide area.

D) Only one parent is required.

114 / 138

TBAT Biology

31. Which human characteristics are inherited?

A) Answer D

B) Answer A

C) Answer C

D) Answer B

115 / 138

TBAT Biology

32. In a sperm cell, which structure contains enzymes that can digest the jelly coat of an egg cell?

A) mitochondria

B) nucleus

C) acrosome

D) flagellum

116 / 138

TBAT Biology

33. When breeding, which pair of parents will be pure-breeding for a particular characteristic?

A) two heterozygous individuals

B) two homozygous individuals

C) a heterozygous and a homozygous individual

D) two individuals with the same phenotype

117 / 138

TBAT Biology

34. Ina pea plant, the allele for round seeds, R, is dominant to the allele for wrinkled seeds, r.

If plants with the genotype Rr are crossed, what are the likely proportions of offspring?

A) all with round seeds

B) all with wrinkled seeds

C) 3 with round seeds : 1 with wrinkled seeds

D) 1 with round seeds : 1 with wrinkled seeds

118 / 138

TBAT Biology

35. Which definition of continuous variation is correct?

A) variation that results in a limited number of phenotypes with no intermediates

B) variation that results in a range of phenotypes with no intermediates

C) variation that results in a limited number of phenotypes between two extremes

D) variation that results in a range of phenotypes between two extremes

119 / 138

TBAT Biology

36. Which term is used to describe an organism that makes its own organic nutrients?

A) producer

B) carnivore

C) decomposer

D) herbivore

120 / 138

TBAT Biology

37. What is the principal source of energy for most food chains?

A) glucose

B) sunlight

C) oxygen

D) carbon dioxide gas

121 / 138

TBAT Biology

38. A single tree is food for a large population of caterpillars. Several small birds eat the caterpillars.

The small birds are eaten by a bird of prey.

Which is the pyramid of biomass?

A) Answer B

B) Answer C

C) Answer A

D) Answer D

122 / 138

TBAT Biology

39. The diagram shows the results of a survey on the types of animals found along a stretch of river near to a factory.

Which animal lives in the least polluted water?

A) leech

B) stonefly nymph

C) caddisfly larva

D) bloodworm

123 / 138

TBAT Biology

40. Bacteria are useful for manufacturing products for human use.

Which statement explains why they are useful?

A) Bacteria can be grown without nutrients.

B) Bacteria infect human cells.

C) Bacteria do not have a nucleus.

D) Bacteria reproduce very rapidly.

124 / 138

TBAT Biology

41. All living organisms release energy from nutrient molecules within their cells.

What is the name of this characteristic?

A) respiration

B) nutrition

C) growth

D) sensitivity

125 / 138

TBAT Biology

42. The scientific names of some animals are listed.

Arius felis
Felis concolor
Felis rufus
Macropus rufus

Which animals are in the same genus?

A) 2, 3 and 4

B) 1, 2 and 3

C) 2 and 3 only

D) 3 and 4 only

126 / 138

TBAT Biology

43. The diagram shows a dichotomous key for arthropods

The organism shown is an arthropod called an isopod.

Which group does the isopod belong to?

A) insects

B) arachnids

C) crustaceans

D) myriapods

127 / 138

TBAT Biology

44. The diagram shows a cross-section through two guard cells of a leaf.

Which labelled structures would also be found in an animal cell?

A) W and X

B) X and Y

C) Z and W

D) Y and Z

128 / 138

TBAT Biology

45. Which level of organisation is shown by the heart of a mammal?

A) acell

B) an organ system

C) a tissue

D) an organ

129 / 138

TBAT Biology

46. The image shows a single-celled organism called a Paramecium.

The length of the Paramecium in the image is 6 cm. The magnification is x400.

Which calculation will give the correct actual length of the Paramecium, in mm?

A) Answer D

B) Answer B

C) Answer C

D) Answer A

130 / 138

TBAT Biology

47. Female moths release chemicals into the air. Male moths detect these chemicals and fly towards the females.

How do the chemicals spread through the air?

A) active transport

B) transpiration

C) osmosis

D) diffusion

131 / 138

TBAT Biology

48. The diagram shows a section through a mesophyll cell of a leaf.

Which part is partially permeable?

A) Answer D

B) Answer B

C) Answer C

D) Answer A

132 / 138

TBAT Biology

49. What are the smaller basic units of starch and glycogen molecules?

A) Answer C

B) Answer B

C) Answer A

D) Answer D

133 / 138

TBAT Biology

50. What is the correct definition of an enzyme?

A) a substance made of fats that changes the rate of a reaction

B) a protein that functions as a biological catalyst

C) a carbohydrate that functions as a biological catalyst

D) a substance that is changed by the reaction

134 / 138

TBAT Biology

51. The diagram shows two food tests being carried out on solution X.

Which nutrients are present in solution X?

A) starch and sugar

B) protein and sugar

C) protein and starch

D) starch and fat

135 / 138

TBAT Biology

52. Which chemical is a product of photosynthesis that moves out of a green leaf through its stomata?

A) glucose

B) carbon dioxide

C) water

D) oxygen

136 / 138

TBAT Biology

53. A student investigated one of the factors that affects photosynthesis.

Part of a leaf was covered with black paper, as shown.

After two days the student tested the leaf for the presence of starch.

Which factor did the student investigate?

A) carbon dioxide

B) chlorophyll

C) oxygen

D) light

137 / 138

TBAT Biology

54. Which nutrient is required to prevent scurvy?

A) calcium

B) vitamin D

C) iron

D) vitamin C

138 / 138

TBAT Biology

55. Which diagram represents the action of lipase?

A) Answer A

B) Answer C

C) Answer D

D) Answer B

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MCAT E-Placement Testมูลค่า 990 บาท

yongyutmoonluang — Mon, 28 Oct 2024 14:17:47 +0000

MCAT Quiz Categories

MCAT E-Placement Test
มูลค่า 990 บาท

The Medical College Admission Test (MCAT) เป็นแบบทดสอบมาตรฐานสำหรับผู้ที่ต้องการเรียนต่อในโรงเรียนแพทย์ในประเทศสหรัฐอเมริกาและแคนาดา ซึ่งดำเนินการจัดสอบและบริหารโดยสมาคมวิทยาลัยแพทย์อเมริกัน (AAMC)

แบบทดสอบทั้งหมด 88 ข้อ (ไม่จับเวลา)
-MCAT Critical Analysis & Reasoning Skills (14 ข้อ)
-MCAT Psychology & Sociology (14 ข้อ)
-MCAT Physic & Math (12 ข้อ)
-MCAT Biology (13 ข้อ)
-MCAT Biochemistry (11 ข้อ)
-MCAT General Chemistry (12 ข้อ)
-MCAT Organic Chemistry (12 ข้อ)

โปรดกรอกข้อมูลผู้ทำแบบทดสอบ

1 / 88

MCAT Critical Analysis & Reasoning Skills
Passage 1

Question

1. We can justifiably infer from this passage that the appearance of Willis Reed at the seventh game of the Lakers-Knicks playoff in 1970:

A) brought New Yorkers a new perspective on the significance of physical injury.

B) played some part in the Knicks' victory.

C) was at the insistence of his coach.

D) was necessary to the Knick's victory.

2 / 88

MCAT Critical Analysis & Reasoning Skills
Passage 1

Question

2. As it is used in the context of the passage, word

A) classical.

B) musical.

C) comedic.

D) histrionic.

3 / 88

MCAT Critical Analysis & Reasoning Skills
Passage 1

Question

3. Which of the following would most undermine Koppett's position on the difference between basketball and other sports like football and baseball?

A) After a football game, commentators cite a memorable play made in the last few moments of the game.

B) Following a basketball game, commentators discuss the

C) contrasting playing styles of team members.

D) After a basketball game, commentators discuss a particular team member's strengths and weaknesses.

E) Days after a basketball game, commentators cite a memorable play made in the third quarter.

4 / 88

MCAT Critical Analysis & Reasoning Skills
Passage 1

Question

4. The author most likely compares basketball to jazz primarily in order to:

A) claim that because of the fast-paced and unpredictable nature of the sport, basketball players are among the most skilled athletes.

B) indicate that basketball requires athletes to be fast.

C) assert that basketball is a newer and more dynamic sport than football or baseball.

D) suggest that, like jazz, basketball allows for flexibility and individual excellence within a set format.

5 / 88

MCAT Critical Analysis & Reasoning Skills
Passage 1

Question

5. The primary purpose of the passage is most nearly:

A) to describe the unique characteristics and challenges of the sport of basketball.

B) to compare and contrast basketball players and musicians.

C) to describe the crucial role of the referee in a basketball game.

D) to defend the ideas offered in Leonard Koppett's All About Basketball against his critics.

6 / 88

MCAT Critical Analysis & Reasoning Skills
Passage 1

Question

6. The role of the individual athlete during a basketball game as described by the author is most analogous to:

A) the role of a member of a selective think-tank in a brainstorming session.

B) the role of an average student in a class.

C) the role of the solo instrumentalist in an orchestra.

D) the role of the director of a film.

7 / 88

MCAT Critical Analysis & Reasoning Skills
Passage 1

Question

7. The author describes the reaction of the coach in paragraph 3 in order to do all of the following EXCEPT:

A) provide an illustration of the various emotions that can be inspired by the game.

B) indicate a limitation on the role of the coach during the game.

C) communicate the unpredictable nature of the game.

D) contrast the limited role of the coach with the central role of the referee.

8 / 88

MCAT Critical Analysis & Reasoning Skills
Passage 2

Question

1. Which of the following statements best expresses the main point of the passage?

A) Benjamin Franklin's deep insights into moral and religious questions, although gaining him the respect of many, contrasted sharply with the simplicity of his writing style.

B) Benjamin Franklin's writings were distinctive in his day for arguing against religious dogma and in favor of tolerance, thereby attracting much criticism from other authors.

C) Despite being accused of hypocrisy, Benjamin Franklin became successful because of his gift for simple speech and to his impressive tolerance.

D) The simplicity of Benjamin Franklin's writing, although somewhat at odds with the sophistication of his thought, was connected to the broad-mindedness that gained him the respect of many of his contemporaries.

9 / 88

MCAT Critical Analysis & Reasoning Skills
Passage 2

Question

2. It is reasonable to infer from the passage that D. H.
Lawrence:

A) was more critical of Franklin's writings than of his behavior.

B) believed that successful religions are usually hypocritical.

C) upheld in his own household and writings the accepted conventions of family life.

D) was envious of Benjamin Franklin's wealth and popularity.

10 / 88

MCAT Critical Analysis & Reasoning Skills
Passage 2

Question

3. In the context of the passage, the word "vigorous" most nearly signifies:

A) tolerant.

B) diligent.

C) vociferous.

D) healthy.

11 / 88

MCAT Critical Analysis & Reasoning Skills
Passage 2

Question

4. According the passage, the relationship of Franklin's writing style to his ideas is most analogous to which of the following?

A) A novel advocating virtues that the author does not uphold in his own personal life.

B) An intricate painting composed entirely of basic geometric shapes.

C) symphony which alternates between fast and slow sections.

D) A movie showing the same events from different perspectives, each of which is equally valid.

12 / 88

MCAT Critical Analysis & Reasoning Skills
Passage 2

Question

5. The authors probably quote Franklin in paragraph 2 in order to:

A) deride the trite expressions common to his more popular writings,

B) emphasize his preference for action over speech.

C) contrast Franklin's and Lawrence's moral outlook,

D) illustrate his simple and unpretentious style,

13 / 88

MCAT Critical Analysis & Reasoning Skills
Passage 2

Question

6. Which of the following statements, if true, would most call into question the authors' characterization of Benjamin Franklin's attitude towards religion?

A) Although Franklin often attended religious services, he did not claim formal membership in any religious institution.

B) Like D. H. Lawrence, Franklin was greatly intrigued by Eastern religions, helping to bring Buddhist and Hindu lecturers to Boston and Philadelphia.

C) Active with the Freemasons, Franklin published pamphlets denouncing the beliefs of the Catholic Church.

D) Franklin was influential in removing "sacred and undeniable" from Thomas Jefferson's first draft of the Declaration of Independence and in replacing these words with "self-evident."

14 / 88

MCAT Critical Analysis & Reasoning Skills
Passage 2

Question

7. It may be inferred from the passage that each of the following describes Benjamin Franklin's writings
EXCEPT:

A) their style reflected in a certain fashion Franklin's attitude towards religion.

B) they at times addressed controversial religious topics.

C) they attracted some readership outside the United States.

D) they were notable for their somewhat commonplace style.

15 / 88

MCAT Psychology & Sociology

1. Which imaging technique is best suited for measuring changes in brain activity that require the highest possible spatial resolution?

A) Electroencephalography (EEG)

B) Computerized tomography (CT)

C) Functional magnetic resonance imaging (fMRI)

D) Positron emission tomography (PET)

16 / 88

MCAT Psychology & Sociology

2. In an experiment, primates are injected with a newly synthesized chemical compound. Which of the following observed effects would provide the best evidence that the drug is a stimulant that is pharmacologically active in these primates?

A) Increased glucose metabolism in the primates' brains

B) Increased alpha waves in the primates' brain

C) Increased absorption of norepinephrine agents inside neurons in the primates' brains

D) Significant constriction of the primates' pupils

17 / 88

MCAT Psychology & Sociology

3. Which of the following structures of the human brain is LEAST likely to show increased activity when an extremely thirsty experimental participant drinks a glass of water?

A) Hypothalamus

B) Nucleus accumbent

C) Amygdala

D) Reticular activating system

18 / 88

MCAT Psychology & Sociology

4. A lesion which of these areas most adversely affects an individual's vision?

A) Occipital lobe

B) Pons

C) Frontal lobe

D) Hypothalamus

19 / 88

MCAT Psychology & Sociology

5. Of the following, which neurotransmitter and hormone pair is most reliably associated with aggression?

A) Melatonin and norepinephrine

B) Serotonin and testosterone

C) GABA and endorphins

D) Glutamate and dopamine

20 / 88

MCAT Psychology & Sociology

6. Group A consists of socially anxious individuals sitting down to meet their peers on the first day of a new job.
Group B consists of non-anxious individuals listening to white noise. In which of the following areas of the brain would we expect to see the largest difference in activity between these two groups?

A) Thalamus

B) Cerebellum

C) Amygdala

D) Basal ganglia

21 / 88

MCAT Psychology & Sociology

7. Each of the following has been demonstrate of schizophrenics EXCEPT:

A) abnormal levels of dopamine.

B) enlarged ventricles.

C) smaller hippocampus.

D) abnormal levels of acetylcholine.

22 / 88

MCAT Psychology & Sociology

8.Which part of the brain initiates signals to the endocrine system?

A) Hypothalamus

B) Hippocampus

C) Thalamus

D) Prefrontal cortex

23 / 88

MCAT Psychology & Sociology

Question

1.Based on the information in the passage, and assuming the validity of the research hypotheses, reductions in mass to which of the following regions would be evidence of the efficacy of a therapeutic intervention?

A) Superior anterior parietal lobe

B) Superior posterior frontal lobe

C) Prefrontal cortex

D) Lateral hypothalamus

24 / 88

MCAT Psychology & Sociology

Question

2. Which of the following would be the most adequate substitute as a neuro imaging technique in the study of cognitive behavioral therapy?

A) Magnetoencephalography (MEG)

B) Electroencephalography (EEG)

C) Positron emission tomography (PET)

D) Magnetic resonance imaging (MRI)

25 / 88

MCAT Psychology & Sociology

Question

3. Which of the following correctly describes the reinforcement schedule used in Study 3?

A) Variable interval

B) Variable ratio

C) Fixed ratio

D) Fixed interval

26 / 88

MCAT Psychology & Sociology

Question

4. Data analysis revealed that of the three therapies, the psychoanalytic method was the least associated with the growth of the prefrontal cortex. Which of the following is a potential problem with the conclusion that psychoanalysis was the least effective of the three therapies?

A) The neurophysiological exams used

B) Growth in the prefrontal cortex is evidence of reduced efficacy

C) The length of time of treatment

D) Study 2 did not include information on the reward circuit

27 / 88

MCAT Psychology & Sociology

Question

5. If the hypothesis in Study 2 turned out to be correct, which of the following would most likely be the reason that the psychoanalytic psychotherapy had been effective?

A) Increased rates of firing between hippocampal and primary sensory cortices

B) Increased integration between the prefrontal cortex and limbic circuits

C) Increased neural integration in the amygdala

D) Increased volume of the prefrontal cortex

28 / 88

MCAT Psychology & Sociology

Question

6. Suppose the subjects in Study 3 were presented with the addictive substances for which they received treatment.
If the treatment was effective, one would expect measurements to show LESS cortical mass in each of the following, EXCEPT:

A) dopaminergic neurons in the basal ganglia.

B) serotonergic neurons in the amygdala.

C) dopaminergic neurons in the ventral tegmental area.

D) dopaminergic neurons in the nucleus accumbent.

29 / 88

MCAT Physic & Math

1. The linear thermal expansion of a metal rod is given by
𝚫L = 𝛼L₀𝚫T. By how many degrees Celsius would the temperature of a rod have to increase for the rod's length to increase by 20%?

A) 1/5α

B) It depends on the original length of the rod.

C) Cannot be determined because kelvins must be used for 𝚫T.

D) αL₀/5

30 / 88

MCAT Physic & Math

2. An amount of heat 𝒬is added to a system. Which of the following can result?
I. Its temperature increases.
II. Its phase changes.
III. It undergoes isothermal expansion.

A) I or IlI only

B) I only

C) I or Il only

D) I, II, or III

31 / 88

MCAT Physic & Math

3. An expanding spring pushes a rigid cylinder of gas across a horizontal frictionless table. Consider the system to be the gas inside the cylinder. Which of the following sets of relations best describes what happens?

A) W on system > 0, 2 = 0, 𝚫KE > 0

B) W on system > 0, 2 < 0, 𝚫KE > 0

C) W on system > 0, 2 > 0, 𝚫KE > 0

D) W on system = 0, 2 = 0, 𝚫KE = 0

32 / 88

MCAT Physic & Math

4. During adiabatic compression of a gas the temperature:

A) remains constant because no heat is transferred

B) decrease because heat is transferred

C) remains constant because heat is transferred

D) increase because no heat is transferred.

33 / 88

MCAT Physic & Math

5. A closed system consisting of a balloon expands by 5 x 10^-2 L at constant temperature in an environment with a pressure of 1.0 x 10⁵ Pa. What is the value of heat transfer in this process?

A) -5.0 kJ

B) 5.0 J

C) -5.0 J

D) 5.0 kJ

34 / 88

MCAT Physic & Math

6.In the thermodynamic cycle shown below, the processes connecting points 2 and 3 and points 1 and 4 are adiabatic. What statement below is true?

A) Heat is exchanged only on processes 1-2 and 3-4.

B) Work is done on or by the gas at every step.

C) All of the above

D) The internal energy of the system returns to the same value after completing a cycle.

35 / 88

MCAT Physic & Math

Question

1. Experiment 4 is an example of an adiabatic process, Which of the following will always be true of an adiabatic process?

A) 2=0

B) 2= W

C) Q=-W

D) The temperature will remain constant.

36 / 88

MCAT Physic & Math

Question

2. How do the pressure and volume of the gas change as a result of the procedures in Experiment 2?

A) The pressure and volume both remain the same.

B) The pressure doubles, but the volume remains the same.

C) The pressure stays the same, but the volume doubles.

D) The pressure and volume both double.

37 / 88

MCAT Physic & Math

Question

3. Which of the following best describes how the pressure and volume of the gas change as a res
Experiment 3?

A) The pressure and volume both increase.

B) The pressure decreases, but the volume increases.

C) The pressure and volume both decrease.

D) The pressure increases, but the volume decreases.

38 / 88

MCAT Physic & Math

Question

4. The student repeats Experiment 1 with a different cylinder and piston and finds that the volume increases from 0.025 m³ to 0.1 m³ at a constant pressure of 40 kPa, What is the value of W?

A) -3000 J

B) +3000 J

C) -300 J

D) +300 J

39 / 88

MCAT Physic & Math

Question

5. Let 𝒬³ and 𝒬⁴ denote the value of the heat transferred in Experiments 3 and 4, respectively, and let𝚫E₃ and 𝚫E₄ represent the change in the internal energy of the gas in Experiments 3 and 4, respectively. Which one of the following statements is true?

A) 2₃ > 2₄ and 𝚫E₃ < 𝚫E₄

B) 2₃ < 2₄ and 𝚫E₃ > 𝚫E₄

C) 2₃ > 2₄ and 𝚫E₃ > 𝚫E₄

D) 2₃ < 2₄ and 𝚫E₃ < 𝚫E₄

40 / 88

MCAT Physic & Math

Question

6. After Experiment 4 is completed, the student places a 200-gram block on top of the piston, which pushes it down by 5 cm. As a result, the student should find that the internal energy of the gas:

A) increases by 0.1 J.

B) decreases by 1 J.

C) increases by 1 J.

D) decreases by 0.1 J.

41 / 88

MCAT Biology

1. A competitive inhibitor of eukaryotic RNA polymerase IlI would have the greatest effect on:

A) reverse transcription.

B) translation.

C) mutation.

D) replication.

42 / 88

MCAT Biology

2. In the lac operon, transcription is regulated by a repressor protein and only takes place in the presence of lactose.Which of the following statements is correct?

A) The repressor protein binds to the promoter site to inhibit transcription.

B) The repressor protein binds the operator site to inhibit transcription.

C) Lactose binds to the repressor protein to inhibit transcription.

D) Lactose binds to the promoter site to initiate transcription.

43 / 88

MCAT Biology

3. Which of the following could not be caused by a single point mutation in the DNA?

A) Ala-GIn-Cys-Asp-Leu -> Ala-GIn

B) Ala-GIn-Cys-Asp-Leu -> Ala-Gin-Cys-Asp-Leu

C) Ala-GIn-Cys-Asp-Leu -> Ala-Gin-Cys-His-Leu

D) Ala-Gin-Cys-Asp-Leu -> Ala-GIn-Cys-His-Lys

44 / 88

MCAT Biology

4. Which of the following is/are true with respect to eukaryotic mRNA?
I. Monocistronic
Il.Transcription stops at the stop codon
III.Has the same sequence as the template DNA that it was transcribed from

A) I, Il, and III

B) Ionly

C) I and II

D) Il and IN

45 / 88

MCAT Biology

5. Which of the following is NOT a similarity between replication and transcription?

A) Both processes occur in the 5' to 3' direction.

B) A pyrophosphate is removed from every nucleotide as polymerization occurs.

C) Both processes occur with the same fidelity.

D) Polymerization in both processes is based on reading a template.

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MCAT Biology

6. Which of the following functions is NOT typically attributed to small nuclear RNA (snRNA)?

A) Maintaining telomeres

B) Regulation of transcription factors

C) Coordinating amino acid addition in translation

D) Processing of pre-mRNA

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MCAT Biology

7. Organisms with a higher degree of complexity do not necessarily have more diverse genomes than less complex organisms, in spite of the need for a greater diversity of proteins. Post-translational modification is one method used by more complex organisms to produce proteins that serve a wider variety of distinct functions.

Which of the following explains this phenomenon?

A) hnRNA is modified by the actions of post-transcriptional agents to provide increased variety in the mRNA used for translation.

B) The genome itself is manipulated by the agents responsible for post-translational modification in order to yield an increase in the number of transcriptional products.

C) Post-translational modification alters the structures and functions of proteins produced from a relatively smaller number of genes.

D) Post-translational modifications enhance the ability of the ribosome to produce distinct protein products.

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MCAT Biology

Question

1. Based on information in the passage, genes codings, particularly abundant proteins in a cell would hard the following EXCEPT:

A) greater use of preferential codons.

B) equal use of redundant codons.

C) high-fidelity replication.

D) codons corresponding to abundant tRNAs.

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MCAT Biology

Question

2. Which of the following could account for the changes brought on by silent mutations in both eukaryotes and prokaryotes?
I. Decrease in mRNA half-life
Il. Disruption of splicing sites
III. Changes in mRNA folding

A) Il and III only

B) I and III only

C) I and II only

D) I, Il, and III

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MCAT Biology

Question

3. Researchers studying a gene associated with breast cancer found that regions where silent mutations occur ("silent sites*) in this gene evolve very slowly compared to other regions within this gene. Comparisons were made between mice and humans. Which of the following is most likely true about this gene?

A) Mutations at the silent sites increase the accuracy of mRNA splicing.

B) Mutations within the silent sites often lead to the death of the organism.

C) The silent sites are less critical to overall function than the other sites.

D) Mutations at other sites are more detrimental to the health of the organism than mutations at the silent sites.

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MCAT Biology

Question

4. Researchers studying the DNA polymerase activity in several different organisms discovered a mutant E. coli polymerase that retained almost 100% of wild-type activity. Which of the following active-site missense mutations is LEAST likely to affect enzyme activity?

A) L -> W

B) R -> G

C) V -> L

D) A -> D

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MCAT Biology

Question

5. Point mutations are found in three subclasses: nonsense mutations, missense mutations, and silent mutations.
Which of the following represents a silent mutation?

A) UUA to CUA

B) UGC to UGA

C) CAU to CUU

D) CAC to CAA

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MCAT Biology

Question

6. How could changing the half-life of an mRNA lead to phenotypic changes?

A) A shorter mRNA half-life would lead to a truncated protein.

B) A longer mRNA half-life would increase the amount of time the mRNA stays bound to the template strand of DNA, and reduce the amount of protein translated.

C) Differences in mRNA folding could alter the rates of translation.

D) More or less of the protein encoded by that mRNA would be translated.

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MCAT Biochemistry

1. Which of the following best describes the function of enzymes?

A) By making the 𝚫G of the reaction more positive, enzymes increase the total amount of product formed.

B) By making the 𝚫G of the reaction more negative, enzymes increase the amount of product formed per unit time.

C) By decreasing the E_a, enzymes increase both the reaction rate and the total amount of product formed.

D) By decreasing the energy of the transition state, enzymes increase the amount of product formed per unit time.

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MCAT Biochemistry

2. Malate dehydrogenase is a key enzyme in TCA cycle, which catalyzes the following reaction, which is unfavorable under standard conditions:

C₄H₆O₅ + NAD⁺ -> C₄H₄O₅ + NADH + H⁺

Which of the following corresponds to the compound that is most likely to be oxidized under standard conditions?

A) NADH

B) C₄H₄O₅

C) C₄H₆O₅

D) NAD⁺

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MCAT Biochemistry

3. All of the following are examples of oxidation-reduction reactions EXCEPT:

I. C₃H₇O₆P + NAD⁺ + P_i, -> C₃H₈O₁₀P₂ + NADH + H⁺
II. C₆H₁₂O₆ + 6O₂ -> 6 CO₂ + 6 H₂O
III. C₆H₁₄O₁₂Р₆ -> 2 C₃H₇O₆P

A) I and II only

B) I and III only

C) III only

D) II only

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MCAT Biochemistry

4. An acidic Glu residue in a protein (neutral in its protonated form) has a p𝑲_a value of 2.3 in the wild-type protein and is found near a neutral Ile residue. What will be the effect on the p𝑲_a of the Glu residue if a mutation substitutes a positively charged Lys residue for the Ile residue?

A) The pK_a will increase due to favorable ionic interactions between the deprotonated Glu and Lys residues.

B) The pK_a will decrease due to favorable ionic interactions between the deprotonated Glu and Lys residues.

C) The pK_a will increase due to unfavorable ionic interactions between the deprotonated Glu and Lys residues.

D) The pK_a will decrease due to unfavorable ionic interactions between the deprotonated Glu and Lys residues.

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MCAT Biochemistry

5. Which of the following best orders the relative basicity
of the side chains of Glu (p𝑲_a = 4.1), Cys (p𝑲_a = 8.3),and Lys (p𝑲_a = 10.8)?

A) Lys > Glu > Cys

B) Lys > Cys > Glu

C) Cys > Glu > Lys

D) Glu > Cys > Lys

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MCAT Biochemistry

6. The cells in your body are constantly undergoing cellular respiration, producing CO₂ as a byproduct. What would happen to the pH of your blood if you were to hold your breath?

A) It would decrease.

B) It cannot be determined with the information provided.

C) It would be the same.

D) It would increase.

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MCAT Biochemistry

Question

1. Based on information presented in the passage, which of the following most likely describes the outcome of replacing the distal imidazole with a nonpolar amino acid residue?

A) The bond between iron and oxygen would be stabilized, increasing the rate at which oxygen dissociates from hemoglobin.

B) The bond between iron and oxygen would be stabilized, decreasing the rate at which oxygen dissociates from hemoglobin.

C) The bond between iron and oxygen would be destabilized, decreasing the rate at which oxygen dissociates from hemoglobin.

D) The bond between iron and oxygen would be destabilized, increasing the rate at which oxygen dissociates from hemoglobin.

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MCAT Biochemistry

Question

2. What is the most likely effect of the addition of acid to the solution in which hemoglobin is suspended?

A) The structure of deoxyhemoglobin would become relatively more strained, increasing affinity for oxygen.

B) The structure of deoxyhemoglobin would become relatively less strained, increasing affinity for oxygen.

C) The structure of deoxyhemoglobin would become relatively less strained, reducing affinity for oxygen.

D) The structure of deoxyhemoglobin would become relatively more strained, reducing affinity for oxygen.

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MCAT Biochemistry

Question

3. Which of the following would be most likely to bind oxygen the fastest in the pulmonary vasculature?

A) Hb

B) Hb(O₂)₃

C) Hb(O₂)₂

D) Нb(O₂)

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MCAT Biochemistry

Question

4. Thermodynamic data for the formation of the hemoglobin tetramer (i.e., association of hemoglobin dimer subunits) provide insight into the "cooperativity" of hemoglobin binding of oxygen. Which of the following statements is most likely to be true based on information in the passage?

A) The relatively lesser magnitude of the negative 𝚫G suggests that oxyhemoglobin dimers will associate more readily than deoxyhemoglobin.

B) The difference in sign between oxygenated and deoxygenated 𝚫S values suggests that deoxyhemoglobin may be stabilized by increased hydrophobic interactions in the dimer-dimer contact region.

C) The positive 𝚫H for oxyhemoglobin suggests that tetramer association occurs spontaneously at body temperature.

D) The similarity in magnitude of 𝚫S values supports the idea that the effect of oxygen on the overall order of hemoglobin is incident only at the fourth oxygen binding event.

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MCAT Biochemistry

Question

5. At body temperature, which of the following statements is likely true based on the data shown in Table 2?

A) Formation of the deoxygenated hemoglobin tetramer is favored due to more favorable heat of formation.

B) Formation of the deoxygenated hemoglobin tetramer is favored due to more favorable entropy.

C) Formation of the oxygenated hemoglobin tetramer is favored due to more favorable heat of formation.

D) Formation of the oxygenated hemoglobin tetramer is favored due to more favorable entropy.

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MCAT General Chemistry

1. During the electrolysis of liquid water into hydrogen and oxygen gas at standard temperature and pressure, energy
is:

A) released during the formation of H–H bonds and the reaction is nonspontaneous.

B) absorbed during the formation of O=O bonds and the reaction is spontaneous.

C) released during the breaking of O–H bonds and the reaction is nonspontaneous.

D) absorbed during the breaking of H–H bonds and the reaction is spontaneous.

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MCAT General Chemistry

2. At standard conditions, the following reaction is endothermic, and non-spontaneous:

2 NH₃(g) -> N₂(g) + 3 H₂(g)

What change could make the reaction spontaneous?

A) Decreasing temperature

B) Increasing temperature

C) Adding a catalyst

D) The reaction will always be non-spontaneous

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MCAT General Chemistry

3. Which of the following should have the highest enthalpy of vaporization?

A) Hg

B) Br₂

C) Al

D) N₂

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MCAT General Chemistry

4. A 36 gram sample of water requires 93.4 kJ to sublime.
What are the heats of fusion (ΔH_fus) and vaporization(ΔH_vap) for water?

A) ΔH_fus = -20 kJ/mol, ΔH_vap = 66.7 kJ/mol

B) ΔH_fus = 12.0 kJ/mol, ΔH_vap = 81.4 kJ/mol

C) ΔH_fuss = 40.7 kJ/mol, ΔH_vap = 6.0 kJ/mol

D) ΔH_fus = 6.0 kJ/mol, ΔH_vap = 40.7 kJ/mol

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MCAT General Chemistry

5. Given the standard enthalpies of formation (ΔH_f^°) at 298 K for the compounds below, all of the following reactions are exothermic EXCEPT:

A) C₂H₅OH(l) + ½ O₂(g) → CH₃CHO(l) + H₂O(l)

B) C₂H₅OH(l) + O₂(g) → CH₃COOH(l) + H₂O(l)

C) CH₃COOH(l) → CH₃CHO(l) + ½ O₂(g)

D) CH₃CHO(l) + ½ O₂(g) → CH₃COOH(l)

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MCAT General Chemistry

6. The citric acid cycle consists of reactions that break down acetate into carbon dioxide. Given that some steps are thermodynamically unfavorable, why does the cycle proceed in the forward direction overall?

A) The cycle contains exergonic reactions that drive the endergonic reactions forward.

B) The endothermically unfavorable reactions also have a negative entropy change.

C) The rate constant for the unfavorable reactions is very large.

D) The activation energies of the unfavorable reactions are lowered by catalysts.The activation energies of the unfavorable reactions are lowered by catalysts.

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MCAT General Chemistry

7. The ΔH^°, of ozone, O₃ is 142.7 kJ/mol. Which of the following statements is true for the decomposition of ozone into oxygen, shown below?

2O₃(g) -> 3 O₂(g)

A) The reaction is only spontaneous at low temperatures.

B) The reaction is never spontaneous.

C) The reaction is always spontaneous.

D) The reaction is only spontaneous at high temperatures.

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MCAT General Chemistry

Question

1. Which of the following species is isoelectronic with the silver ion in AgCI?

A) Rh⁺

B) In^-

C) Pd

D) Cd²⁺

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MCAT General Chemistry

Question

2. Given that the dissolution of sodium chloride is spontaneous below the saturation concentration, which of the following statements must be true?

A) Forming solute-solvent interactions requires energy, while breaking solute-solute and solvent-solvent interactions releases energy.

B) The increase in entropy must outweigh the enthalpy change of dissolution to create a negative Gibbs free energy.

C) All ionically-bound materials are substantially soluble water.

D) Sodium chloride is only soluble at high temperatures.

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MCAT General Chemistry

Question

3. Which one of the salts in Table 1 has the smallest value of ΔG^°_diss?

A) PbCI₂

B) BaSO₄

C) AgCI

D) MgCO₃

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MCAT General Chemistry

Question

4. Which of the following is consistent with the differences in ΔH^°_diss for NaCl and LiCI?

A) The electrostatic forces in solid LiCk are much stronger than in solid NaCI, while coordination of water is equivalent for both salts.

B) The electrostatic forces in solid NaCI are slightly weaker than in solid LiCI, while water far more efficiently coordinates Li⁺ than Na⁺.

C) The electrostatic forces in the two solids are approximately equivalent, while water molecules coordinate much more effectively to Na⁺ than Li⁺

D) The electrostatic forces in solid LiCI are weaker than in solid NaCI, while water cannot effectively coordinate to the very small Li⁺ cation.

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MCAT General Chemistry

Question

5. The transfer of heat to or from a solution changes the temperature of the solution according to the equation
9 = mcΔT where q is the heat transferred, m is the mass of solvent, and c is the specific heat of the solvent. If a 1 g sample of a salt was dissolved in 20 mL of water (specific heat = 4.18 J/g^°C) in an insulated beaker and the temperature was found to decrease by 4^°C, which of the following salts was used? Assume no phase change for the water.

A) NH₄NO₃

B) KCH₃CO₂

C) LiCI

D) NaCI

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MCAT Organic Chemistry

1. Rank the protons from least acidic to most acidic.

A) H^c‹H^d‹H^b‹H^a

B) H^c‹H^b=H^d‹H^a

C) H^a‹H^b=H^d‹H^c

D) H^c‹H^b‹H^d‹H^a

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MCAT Organic Chemistry

2. Predict a possible product of the following reaction:

A) 4

B) 1

C) 2

D) 3

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MCAT Organic Chemistry

3. The enol and keto tautomers of 2-pentanone(shown below)are best described as:

A) Resonance structures.

B) Constitutional isomer

C) Diastereomers

D) Geometric isomer

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MCAT Organic Chemistry

4. Which of the following carbonyl compounds cannot undergo a self aldol condensation ?

A) 1,2,2-triphenylethanone

B) 2,2,4,4-tetramethylpentan-3-one

C) 3.3-dimethylbutan-2-one

D) Pentan-2-one

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MCAT Organic Chemistry

5. Which of the following would increase the rate of the reaction shown below?

l. Addition of acid
ll. Addition of base
lll. Increased concentration of EtOH

A) II and III only

B) I and II only

C) I only

D) I,II and III

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MCAT Organic Chemistry

6. A reaction is performed at 20^°C to form a mixture of two products, L(20%) and M(80%). When heated to 60^°C and allowed to stand overnight, the composition of the mixture slowly changes to 80% L/20% M and does not change at longer reaction time. Which one of the following statements is most consistent with these observations?

A) L is formed faster than M

B) An equilibrium mixture of L and M is formed at 60^°C

C) The activation energy for formation of L is Lower than that for M

D) M is more stable than L

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MCAT Organic Chemistry

7. Which of the following reactions presents the fastest reaction?

A) 4

B) 2

C) 3

D) 1

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MCAT Organic Chemistry

Question

1. in the first step shown in Figure 1, which of the following 1. acts as the nucleophile?

A) Enol of Molecule 1

B) Enolate of Molecule 1

C) Enol of Molecule 2

D) Enolate of Molecule 2

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MCAT Organic Chemistry

Question

2. The antibody described in the passage catalyzes an enantioselective Robinson annulation reaction. What is the stereochemistry of the single enantiomer that is produced?

A) (Z)-(S)

B) (Z)-(R)

C) (E)-(R)

D) (E)-(S)

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MCAT Organic Chemistry

Question

3. The reaction of Molecule 3 with the lysine side chain of the catalytic antibody can best be described as what type of reaction?

A) Hydrolysis

B) Esterification

C) Alkylation

D) Addition-elimination

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MCAT Organic Chemistry

Question

4. If the first step in Figure I was carried out in NOD/ DzO, which of the following molecules would NOT be produced?

A) 3

B) 4

C) 2

D) 1

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MCAT Organic Chemistry

Question

5. An aldol condensation between which two compounds could be used to generate Molecule 1?

A) 1

B) 2

C) 4

D) 3

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TBAT E-Placement Testมูลค่า 990 บาท

TBAT E-Placement Test มูลค่า 990 บาท

MCAT E-Placement Testมูลค่า 990 บาท

MCAT E-Placement Test มูลค่า 990 บาท

TBAT E-Placement Test
มูลค่า 990 บาท

MCAT E-Placement Test
มูลค่า 990 บาท